A Query for Those More Knowledgable
I came across a commentary on an Evangelical website and found the same query repeated at a Progressive Catholic website and thought I would get some helpful feedback from everyone here. Both sites contended, with slightly different emphases, that NFP was not licit. Their arguments went something like: IF the purpose of sexual congress is twofold procreative and unitive and IF one deliberately, with malice aforethought impedes one or the other of these purposes, one cannot be said to be upholding the two-fold purpose and therefore one is committing a sin.
The notion is the contraceptive mentality, I suppose. I'd like to hear from those out there who better understand this issue. I tend to concur with the evangelical who concluded that the proper Christian could not use NFP--but that is more out of ignorance and my usual seat-of-the-pants reasoning. So, please help clarify this mystifying issue. If your response is too long for my blog, please leave me a note directing me to the response on your own. Thanks!