It Would Seem
In the entry below I asked:
Again, can a higher loyalty override the loyalty to the state (render unto Caesar. . .) thus, in Bonhoeffer's case, does a loyalty to God override a loyalty to Hitler?
Using the mathematical guideline that a single negative instance disproves the conclusion, one can conclude that this statement can never be true in committing an action specifically prohibited by God (i.e. murder). It can be true in commiting an act prohibited by the state. For example it ALWAYS a sin to bomb an abortion clinic or to cause harm to any member of that clinic staff deliberately. It may not be sinful, and it may be righteous, in opposition to unjust laws and unjust legislation arising from the improper source, to block the entrance to an aboriton clinic (legal disclaimer: not an action I would encourage as there are other legal means toward accomplishing the same goal). So we can say that while it may be proper to attend to a higher authority when the action tends toward His will, it is never appropriate to do so when the action is in direct opposition to His stated will (let's say, the 10 commandments). This still leaves open the whole question of the definition of the situation (assassination, etc.). But the answer to the question is fairly obvious and should have been before I asked. You can never commit a sin for purposes of achieving a good. Sometimes my foggy brain suggests possiblities that are not. Oh well.
